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Posted by Alchemist on 02-03-2006 06:35 PM:

Disorder

Why are pedophilia and ephebophilia considered disorders in psychology while homosexuality is not? Also what about pederasty and the Man-Boy love association? What goes there?


Posted by PsychoSnowman on 02-04-2006 05:08 AM:

homosexuality was a mental illness in DSM III. it has since been taken out for DSM IV.

My guess is cultural acceptance. it is a fragile process to construct norms, and even more fragile it is to actually be own up, and be consistent with definitions when the common american is so content with hypocrtical picking and choosing. I am equivocating a bit, but i think you may know what i mean.

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Posted by Alchemist on 02-22-2006 02:21 AM:

I quote

"

Homosexuality has been removed from the Diagnostics Statistics Manual. As far a the ephebophilia or the attraction/sexual attraction to teenagers/adolescents who are post puberty...well many states have laws defining the legal age one must be in order to consent to sex, these statatory rape laws vary and consider this consenting age to be anywhere from 15 or so to 18 and different for males and females. We will look at this when we study virginity and the virginity movement.

Now as far as comparing or suggesting a likeness between homosexuality (would I assume here to be consenting adults who want to engage in a sex act with someone of the same sex) and pedophilia being an adult who has sex with children/pre-pubescent to be vastly different. Our culture says sex with children (and defines the age for which one can speak for his or her own body) is a no no!!! There have been historical references that all three practices at one point or another were considered a normal part of ancient cultures. What does that mean, I don't know...I am disturbed by the analogy this post seems to provoke...that homosexuality, ephebophilia and pedophedia are all equally deviant and are equally discriminated against. this is like comparing apples to oranges. Consenting adults in a homosexual relationhsip and adolescents and children in sexual relationship with an adult whether it be hetero or homo in nature ARE not the same thing...the question that should really be asked is who has the right to legislate what body (be that of adult, teenager, child) and how do they legislate what that body can or cannot do in the bedroom or to someone else...it seems to be that you are saying where can we draw the line?? If we allow homosexuals to gain equal status then pedophiliacs and ephedophiliacs will want the same thing...that is not an argument that I can address..."


Posted by MellowYellow on 07-27-2006 10:24 PM:

quote:
Originally posted by PsychoSnowman
homosexuality was a mental illness in DSM III. it has since been taken out for DSM IV.

My guess is cultural acceptance. it is a fragile process to construct norms, and even more fragile it is to actually be own up, and be consistent with definitions when the common american is so content with hypocrtical picking and choosing. I am equivocating a bit, but i think you may know what i mean.



The Bible?

lol.

I gave it my best shot people.

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